Pass Guaranteed Quiz 2026 Medical Council of Canada Efficient MCCQE Real Dumps
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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q69-Q74):
NEW QUESTION # 69
An 18-year-old man presents to your clinic with a history of intermittent, dull, achy pain on the left side of his scrotum, and he has now noted left scrotal enlargement. On examination, you note a swelling in the left scrotum when he is standing that disappears when he is supine. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Varicocele.
- B. Hydrocele.
- C. Spermatocyte.
- D. Cryptorchidism.
- E. Intermittent testicular torsion.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus that presents with a "bag of worms" appearance, worsens with standing, and improves when lying down. It is most common on the left side due to anatomical drainage differences.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Scrotal Disorders:
"Varicoceles often present with a dull, aching pain and scrotal swelling that worsens when upright and disappears when supine." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Urology:
"Candidates must recognize and diagnose varicocele by physical exam findings and typical symptom history." Cryptorchidism (A) refers to undescended testes. Torsion (B) presents acutely with severe pain. Hydrocele (C) transilluminates and is not posture-dependent. "Spermatocyte" (D) is not a clinical diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 70
An 18-month-old boy is brought to the office by his guardians for a well-child visit. His guardians are concerned that his eyes do not look the same. On examination, his eyes appear as shown in the referenced photo.
Which one of the following best represents the patient's condition?
- A. Ptosis
- B. Cataract
- C. Pseudostrabismus
- D. Strabismus
Answer: D
Explanation:
The image shows an asymmetrical light reflex (corneal light reflex not centered in both eyes), which is diagnostic of strabismus. This misalignment of the eyes must be treated early to prevent amblyopia (lazy eye).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Ophthalmology:
"Strabismus presents with misaligned visual axes. The Hirschberg light reflex is off-center in the affected eye.
Prompt referral is necessary to prevent amblyopia."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Vision and Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize strabismus on visual screening and refer early for correction to prevent permanent vision impairment." Pseudostrabismus (B) can be ruled out here because the light reflex is not symmetric. Ptosis (A) involves drooping of the eyelid, which is not evident. Cataracts (D) would typically present with a leukocoria (white reflex), not misalignment.
NEW QUESTION # 71
You are examining a full-term baby girl in the nursery. You notice that her left forefoot is adducted and supinated relative to the contralateral foot, which makes her left foot appear C-shaped. Which one of the following findings is most instrumental in deciding on the management of this issue?
- A. Significant hallux valgus
- B. Cephalohematoma
- C. Flexibility of the deformity
- D. Internal tibial torsion
- E. Syndactyly of 2nd and 3rd toes
Answer: C
Explanation:
The description is classic for metatarsus adductus. The most important clinical factor guiding management is whether the foot is flexible or rigid. Flexible deformities typically resolve spontaneously and do not require intervention.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Musculoskeletal Conditions":
"Metatarsus adductus: inward deviation of the forefoot. Management depends on flexibility. Flexible cases are benign and resolve spontaneously; rigid forms may need casting." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):
"Candidates must assess and differentiate between flexible and rigid deformities to guide treatment in foot abnormalities." Other findings (B-E) are either unrelated or not determinant in metatarsus adductus management.
-
NEW QUESTION # 72
A 38-year-old woman has progressive renal failure despite optimal medical treatment for her glomerulonephritis. Her ex-husband asks if he might be considered as a kidney donor. They have joint custody of their 10-year-old son. Which one of the following is the best response to the ex-husband's request?
- A. His request must be refused because of the risk of leaving their child with 2 unhealthy parents.
- B. He may proceed with assessment for possible organ donation.
- C. Advise against a donation because of their divorce.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Living kidney donation is based on voluntary, informed consent and thorough medical and psychosocial evaluation of the donor. MCCQE ELOM objectives emphasize respect for autonomy and avoidance of unjustified discrimination. An ex-spouse may be considered as a potential donor if he meets medical criteria and demonstrates informed, voluntary decision-making free of coercion. Marital status or divorce is not a valid reason to exclude someone from donor assessment.
Concerns about the welfare of their child are important but are addressed during the standard donor evaluation process, which includes psychosocial assessment and discussion of risks. Donation cannot be automatically refused on speculative grounds. Instead, transplant programs conduct rigorous screening to ensure donor safety and voluntariness.
Therefore, the appropriate response is to allow him to proceed with formal donor assessment , where suitability, risks, motivations, and support systems will be evaluated comprehensively before any final decision is made.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A 28-year-old woman presents because of spotting mid-menstrual cycle. Speculum examination reveals an ulcerated endocervical polyp. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?
- A. Cryotherapy.
- B. Colposcopy.
- C. Punch biopsy.
- D. Polypectomy.
- E. Serial cytology.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Endocervical polyps are common and often benign. An ulcerated polyp may bleed but is not itself suspicious unless it shows atypical features. The appropriate management is to remove the polyp (polypectomy) and send it for histopathology to exclude malignancy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Cervical Pathology:
"Endocervical polyps are removed by polypectomy and sent for histological analysis. Most are benign.
Atypical or ulcerated appearance may raise concern, but biopsy is unnecessary if the entire lesion is excised." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Abnormal Bleeding and Cervical Lesions:
"Candidates should recognize that cervical polyps causing intermenstrual bleeding should be removed and assessed histologically." Colposcopy (B) is reserved for abnormal cytology or high-risk lesions. Cryotherapy (A) is for cervical dysplasia. Punch biopsy (E) is used for lesions that are not amenable to polypectomy.
NEW QUESTION # 74
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